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NEW QUESTION: 1
In its VaR calculations, JPMorgan Chase uses an expected tail-loss methodology which approximates losses at the 99% confidence level. This methodology consists of two subsequent steps to estimate the VaR. Which of the following explains this two-step methodology?
A. After VaR is computed at the 99% confidence level, the expected tail loss in excess of that confidence level is determined, which is then compared with the VaR estimate at the 99% confidence level.
B. After VaR is computed at the 99% confidence level, the expected tail loss in excess of that confidence level is determined, which is then compared with the VaR estimate at the 98% confidence level.
C. After VaR is computed at the 1% confidence level, the expected tail loss in excess of that confidence level is determined, which and is then compared with the VaR estimate at the 98% confidence level.
D. After VaR is computed at the 97% confidence level, the expected tail loss in excess of that confidence level is determined, which is then compared with the VaR estimate at the 99% confidence level.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION: 2
You are leading a team of new hires and need to train them on innovative strategies and technologies that will be used to develop an upcoming project. You send several e-mail messages with links to helpful resources. But you soon realize this is an inefficient way to organize and share this information. Which solution would provide a more efficient way to categorize and share this information?
A. Social tagging
B. Ajax programming
C. Collective intelligence
D. Grid computing
Answer: A
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 3
Regarding high availability, with the MAC address 0000.0c07.ac03, what does the "03" represent?
A. The GLBP group number
B. The HSRP group number
C. The type of encapsulation
D. The VRRP group number
E. The active router number
F. The HSRP router number
Answer: B
Explanation:
The last two-digit hex value in the MAC address presents the HSRP group number.